You cannot give an irrevocable consent, because that would be attempting to alienate a “human right.”

 

Jon Neiditz
Kilpatrick Townsend & Stockton LLP
Suite 2800 | 1100 Peachtree Street NE | Atlanta, GA 30309-4528
office 404 815 6004 | cell 678-427-7809 | fax 770 234 6341
jneiditz@kilpatricktownsend.com | My Profile | vCard

    

From: Mike O'Neill [mailto:michael.oneill@baycloud.com]
Sent: Tuesday, October 06, 2015 11:21 AM
To: 'James Hazard'
Cc: Neiditz, Jon; 'WG UMA'; 'ProjectVRM list'
Subject: RE: [projectvrm] Re: [WG-UMA] The Death of Safe Harbor is the Ultimate VRM and UMA Legal Opportunity

 

Correct. Consent must be “freely given, specific and informed”. Even if the basis is “legitimate interest” they still have the right to opt-out, by automated means (if that is still in the GDPR).

 

From: James Hazard [mailto:james.g.hazard@gmail.com]
Sent: 06 October 2015 15:48
To: Mike O'Neill <michael.oneill@baycloud.com>
Cc: Neiditz, Jon <JNeiditz@kilpatricktownsend.com>; WG UMA <wg-uma@kantarainitiative.org>; ProjectVRM list <projectvrm@eon.law.harvard.edu>
Subject: Re: [projectvrm] Re: [WG-UMA] The Death of Safe Harbor is the Ultimate VRM and UMA Legal Opportunity

 

So, roughly, 

 

?/

 

"I consent to You taking the Specified Personal Information to the US.  You agree to: protect it, use it only for Specified Purposes, inform me of Leaks, and Destroy it when no longer needed for the Specified Purposes or I ask You to."

 

 

Can a person give non-revocable consent to use of data within EU?

 

/?

 

 

 

   

 

On Tue, Oct 6, 2015 at 4:21 PM, Mike O'Neill <michael.oneill@baycloud.com> wrote:

Consent must be “freely given”, so IMO it follows that it must be revocable (with a “sunset”). Article 29 and many DPAs also have said that.

 

 

From: James Hazard [mailto:james.g.hazard@gmail.com]
Sent: 06 October 2015 14:53
To: Neiditz, Jon <JNeiditz@kilpatricktownsend.com>
Cc: WG UMA <wg-uma@kantarainitiative.org>; ProjectVRM list <projectvrm@eon.law.harvard.edu>
Subject: [projectvrm] Re: [WG-UMA] The Death of Safe Harbor is the Ultimate VRM and UMA Legal Opportunity

 

Do you mean that consent of the person permits transfer of data, but consent is necessarily revocable and data must be destroyed?

On Oct 6, 2015 3:40 PM, "Neiditz, Jon" <JNeiditz@kilpatricktownsend.com> wrote:

Why?

The Advocate General's opinion and the Court's decision both turn on the inability of Safe Harbor to prevent surveillance.  NO permitted basis for data transfer prevents surveillance, not Model Clauses, not Binding Corporate Rules (BCRs).  Logically, if probably not in immediate corporate and EU national practice, the only bulletproof basis for data transfer to the US is now the ever-so-revocable CONSENT, which presumes no fictitious protection from surveillance.

See also:  https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/good-morning-safe-harbor-dead-what-does-mean-now-later-jon-neiditz?trk=prof-post

Your thoughts?

Jon Neiditz
Kilpatrick Townsend & Stockton LLP
Suite 2800 | 1100 Peachtree Street NE | Atlanta, GA 30309-4528
office 404 815 6004  | cell 678-427-7809 | fax 770 234 6341
jneiditz@kilpatricktownsend.com | www.kilpatricktownsend.com


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